BIEK Karachi Board Inter 11th 12th Class Model Papers 2024 Download

Free BIEK Karachi Board Model Paper 2024 DownloadThe Karachi Board is in charge of organizing big exams for students in grades 11 and 12 in Karachi, the largest city in Pakistan with about 20 million people. Every year, hundreds of thousands of students take these exams. The Karachi Boards schedule is similar to other boards in Pakistan. They start registering students, both regular and private, in December or January. They give out roll numbers and exam schedules in March. The Karachi Boards main exams happen in April and May, and results come out after two or three months. Then, they start the process for extra exams for grades 11 and 12. Get all BIEK Karachi Board 11th, 12th, Inter, 1st 2nd year Model Paper 2024 Download free online by pkstudys.

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Biek Karachi Inter Part I Model Paper 2024

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BOTANY PAPER-I (MODEL PAPER)

Annual Examination 2023

(Science Pre-Medical Group)

Time Allowed: 2 hours Total Marks: 45

SECTION “A” (M.C.Q.s)

Time Allowed: 15 minutes Max Marks: 09

Q1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given option:

Note: This Section consists of 18 MCQs and all are to be answered. each MCQ carry 0.5 marks.

  1. Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA
  2. Ribosomes II. Chloroplast III. Mitochondria
  3. I only b. II only c. II and III d. I and II
  4. Select the correct statement
  5. PS I and ATP synthase complexes are located in the appressed part of thylakoid.
  6. PS I and NADP reductase are located in the appressed part of thylakoid membrane.
  7. Appressed part contain NADP reductase and ATP synthase.
  8. Non appressed (non-stack) having PS I.
  9. The Oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involve directly in which process or events
  10. Glycolysis b. Accepting electron at the end of electron transport chain
  11. The citric acid cycle d. The oxydation of pyruvate to acetyle CoA
  12. Bacteriophages escape from host cell by the activity of
  13. Lysozyme b. Ribozyme c. Peroxidase d. Reductase
  14. When habitat conditions become harsh and nutrients are exhausted, the development in bacteria

is initiated called

  1. Capsule b. Cell wall c. Endospore d. Mesosome
  2. The most important cellulose degraders in eco system are
  3. Ascomycota b. Zygomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Deutromucota
  4. Subdivision of Tracheophyta which does not contain true roots and leaves
  5. Lycopsida b. Psilopsida c. Pteropsida d. Sphenopsida
  6. Which process involved in the promotion of flowering by cold treatment
  7. Photoperiodism b. Vernalization c. Secondary growth d. Transpiration
  8. Guttation occurs through
  9. Lenticels b. Hydathodes c. Stomata d. Bark
  10. Clarity of image is generally known as
  11. Magnification b. Contrast c. Resolution d. Sedimentation
  12. Oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate form
  13. α-Ketoglutarate b. Succinate c. Cis-Aconitate d. Fumarate
  14. Plant oxidizes sugar in chloroplast during day time without production of energy called
  15. C4 cycle b. Photorespiration c. C3 cycle d. Photophosphorylation
  16. Some structure are smaller than virus having single stranded RNA with some double stranded regions

called

  1. Viroids b. Prions c. Minus strand virus d. Double stranded DNS virus
  2. Anaerobic bacteria produce all chemicals during respiration except
  3. Ethanol b. CO2 c. Water d. Lactic acid
  4. A typical structure of obligate parasite, specialized for fixation and absorption
  5. Flagella b. Pili c. Haustoria d. Root hairs
  6. In banana tree, flowers are covered over by one or many large brackets called
  7. Spathes b. Spadix c. Capitulum d. Palea
  8. The hydrostatic pressure in excess of atmospheric pressure is known as
  9. Water potential b. Pressure potential c. Osmotic potential
  10. Solute potential
  11. Induction of flowering in response to the relative length of day and night is known as
  12. Photoperiodism b. Photophosphorylation c. Photorespiration
  13. Phototropism

SECTION ‘B'(SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS

Time: 1 hour 45 min Max Marks: 22

Q2. Attempt any 11-part questions. Each question carries TWO mark.

  1. Why insectivorous plants use insects as food?
  2. Why Chloroplast is said to be an energy converting organelle?
  3. Describe the role and deficiency symptoms of Nitrogen and Potassium in plant.
  4. Differentiate between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
  5. Why Photorespiration is considered as wasteful process?
  6. Define followings:

* Double Fertilization * Heterospory

  1. What do you mean by bacterial growth? Describe its phases.
  2. Why Protoctista considered as polyphyletic kingdom?
  3. Give botanical name of any four of the following

*Wheat *Mako*Barley*rice*Amaltas*Mulhethi.

  1. Describe the classification of bacteria on the basis of their shapes?
  2. Draw a well labelled diagram of the followings:

*Bacteriophage virus * Fern prothallus

  1. How many ATP and NADPH requires to fix 1 carbon, 3 carbon, 6 carbon and 12 carbon.
  2. What features allow fungi to survive in all environment where life is possible?
  3. Why osmotic adjustment is beneficial for plants?
  4. What do you mean by positive and negative sense virus?
  5. Why desert plants reduce their leaf size?

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Max Marks: 14

Note: Attempt any two question from this section all question carries equal marks.

Q3. Explain structure and properties of Plasma membrane with diagram. OR Light independent

reaction (C3 cycle) of photosynthesis in detail.

Q4. What are Growth regulators? Name and discuss five in detail. OR Explain the life cycle of Moss

with the help of diagrams.

Q5. Describe structure of Bacterium with diagram.

 


ENGLISH (C) NORMAL PAPER-I (MODEL PAPER)

Annual Examination – 2023

Max. Marks: 20 SECTION ‘A’ MCQs Time: 20 Minutes

  1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:
  2. i) This is a strong retreat for a truly happy man according to the poem ‘The Character of a Happy Life’:

*home *conscience *wealth *friends

  1. ii) ‘For thirty pence our Saviour was sold,’ is a line from this poem:

*Ozymandias *The Character of a Happy Life *Lucy Gray *The Abbot of Canterbury

iii) In the line When he might have captured the victor’s cup,’ the highlighted phrase is metaphorically

used for:

*prize *failure *success *trophy

  1. iv) ‘Boundless and bare’ is an example of this poetic device:

*oxymoron *onomatopoeia *metaphor *alliteration

  1. v) Khahoris follow the spiritual path and symbolise the search of:

*serpents *dreams *herbs *reality

  1. vi) The central character in the play ‘A Visit to a Small Planet’ is:

*John Randolph *Roger Spelding * Kreton*Ellen

vii) Kreton thought that the views of John about Ellen are:

*red *purple *yellow *pink

viii) Kreton considered human civilization as:

*modern*primitive*conservative*progressive

  1. ix) The word “folk” means:

*children*men*women*people

  1. x) Roger Spelding wants to be the first journalist to interview:

*General Powers *Kreton *Ellen*John

  1. xi) E.B. White revisited the lake with his son in:

*summer * winter * autumn *spring

xii) Mathilde seemed happiest when she:

*received the invitation*danced in the party*bought a new dress*borrowed the necklace

xiii) According to the author Ralph Waldo envy is:

* bliss *evil *suicide *ignorance

xiv) During World War II, transmission of information was in the form of:

* material * electric * analogue * catalogue

  1. xv) A group of people travelling together is called as:

*sages *crew *caravan *shrewd men

xvi) The cleaning staff __infected the area to avoid the spread of coronavirus (identify the correct

prefix):

*re* dis *un *mis

xvii) In the sentence ‘There is a large demand all over the United States for plants indigenous to the

desert,’ the word ‘indigenous’ means:

*native *necessary*foreign*alien

xviii) In the sentence ‘He runs fast,’ the underlined verb is:

*transitive *intransitive *auxiliary *modal

xix) In the sentence ‘I run a business successfully,’ the underlined verb is:

*transitive *intransitive *auxiliary *modal

  1. xx) The comparative degree of the word little is:

*littler*more little *less*more less

BOARD OF INTERMEDIATE EDUCATION, KARACHI

ENGLISH (C) NORMAL PAPER-I (MODEL PAPER)

Annual Examination – 2023

TIME: 2 Hours 40 minutes Max. Marks: 50

SECTION B (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Note: Attempt TEN part-questions from this section, including at least TWO part-questions from each

sub-section. All questions carry equal marks.

SUB-SECTION I (Reading Comprehension)

  1. i) Which is the greatest curse according to the Quaid-e-Azam? Explain.
  2. ii) What are the benefits of E-Commerce in today’s world?

iii) What mistake did Stephen Leacock make when he wrote the cheque?

  1. iv) Why should you choose a career that interests you?

SUB-SECTION II (POETRY)

  1. v) Discuss the poem ‘The Character of a Happy Life’ with reference to the

line; “And having nothing yet hath all.”

  1. vi) What irony has been presented in the poem Ozymandias?

vii) What reward does a Khahori get after his hard work?

viii) Identify the poem and the poetic devices used in the following lines:

Where thickest lies the forest growth

We find the patriarchs of both.

And they hold counsel with the stars

whose broken branches show the scars

of many winds and much of strife.

This is the common law of life.

SUB-SECTION III (Play- A Visit to a Small Planet)

  1. ix) Why was Kreton interested in visiting the planet “Earth”?
  2. x) Describe the reactions of different characters to Kreton’s visit?
  3. xi) How is media portrayed in the play?

xii) Which character in the play “A Visit to a Small Planet” do you like most and why?

SUB-SECTION IV (Grammar)

xiii) Change the narration.

  1. a) The manager said to the customer, “Get out of my office.”
  2. b) He said, “The earth is round.”
  3. c) Raza said, “I must arrange a couple of things.”
  4. d) She said, “Be quite and listen to my words.”
  5. e) She said to me, “What are you doing now?”

xiv) Change the voice:

  1. a) He has to purchase a car.
  2. b) Let her write a poem.
  3. c) Why did you help her?
  4. d) Who did this?
  5. e) Someone killed the criminal.
  6. xv) Spot the errors and do the correction of verb, preposition and adjective in the following

sentences:

  1. a) He does his homework at the afternoon.
  2. b) The lamp will be lit on 8.00 pm.
  3. c) She clean her room every day.
  4. d) They have make a cake on their birthday.
  5. e) My bed is more big than my desk.

xvi) Do as directed:

  1. a) Do you play tennis said Bilal (Punctuate)
  2. b) If I were you, ………. (Complete the sentence)
  3. c) My brother does not write letters to his friends. (Put the adverb ‘usuallyin the

right place)

  1. d) He could not win a scholarship. He is careless. (Make a compound sentence)
  2. e) You _____ visit your dentist at least twice a year. (Insert modal verb showing

advice)

SECTION ‘C’ (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (Max. Marks: 30)

Note: Attempt all questions from this section.

Q3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

OR

Make a précis of the passage and suggest a suitable title to it.

Harland Sanders was born in the USA in 1890s but his childhood wasn’t a happy one. His father

died when he was only six. So, his mother needed to find a job. She went to work in a shirt

factory and Harland stayed at home to look after his younger brother and sister. That was when he

first learned to cook. He left home when he was twelve and worked on a nearby farm. After that

he had a lot of different jobs and in 1950 he became a service station manager in Corbin

Kentucky. He started cooking meals for hungry travellers who stopped at the service station and

soon people came only for the food. Harland moved to 142 seat restaurant across the street.

Where he could serve all his customers. Over the next nine years he developed the secret chicken

recipe that made him famous. In the early 1950s he closed the restaurant and decided to sell his

recipe to other business. The first official Kentucky fried chicken restaurant didn’t open until

August 1952—- by 1964 there were more than 600 KFCs in North America. That year Sanders

sold the company for $ 2 million, but he continued to work as KFC’s public spokesman and

visited restaurants all over the world. He travelled every year until he died in 1980 aged 90. There

are now KFC restaurants in more than 80 countries and they sell 2.5 billion chicken dinners every

year and the recipe is still a secret.

  1. How long did it take Sanders to develop his secret chicken recipe?
  2. What did Sanders do after he had sold his company?
  3. Give a suitable title to the passage.
  4. Identify regular and irregular verbs
  5. i) left ii) went iii) needed iv) stayed

Q4. Write a formal email to your college Principal asking / requesting him to allow your team to

participate in Sindh Inter- College Cricket Tournament.

OR

Write a Report about student week held in the college (Including events, days and dates).

Q5. Write a narrative account of an incident that influenced you greatly.

OR

Write an essay to compare and contrast on any one of the following:

  1. i) Physical Classes v/s Online Classes
  2. ii) Football v/s Cricket

BOTANY PAPER-I (MODEL PAPER)

Annual Examination 2023

(Science Pre-Medical Group)

Time Allowed: 2 hours Total Marks: 45

SECTION “A” (M.C.Q.s)

Time Allowed: 15 minutes Max Marks: 09

Q1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given option:

Note: This Section consists of 18 MCQs and all are to be answered. each MCQ carry 0.5 marks.

  1. Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA
  2. Ribosomes II. Chloroplast III. Mitochondria
  3. I only b. II only c. II and III d. I and II
  4. Select the correct statement
  5. PS I and ATP synthase complexes are located in the appressed part of thylakoid.
  6. PS I and NADP reductase are located in the appressed part of thylakoid membrane.
  7. Appressed part contain NADP reductase and ATP synthase.
  8. Non appressed (non-stack) having PS I.
  9. The Oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involve directly in which process or events
  10. Glycolysis b. Accepting electron at the end of electron transport chain
  11. The citric acid cycle d. The oxydation of pyruvate to acetyle CoA
  12. Bacteriophages escape from host cell by the activity of
  13. Lysozyme b. Ribozyme c. Peroxidase d. Reductase
  14. When habitat conditions become harsh and nutrients are exhausted, the development in bacteria

is initiated called

  1. Capsule b. Cell wall c. Endospore d. Mesosome
  2. The most important cellulose degraders in eco system are
  3. Ascomycota b. Zygomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Deutromucota
  4. Subdivision of Tracheophyta which does not contain true roots and leaves
  5. Lycopsida b. Psilopsida c. Pteropsida d. Sphenopsida
  6. Which process involved in the promotion of flowering by cold treatment
  7. Photoperiodism b. Vernalization c. Secondary growth d. Transpiration
  8. Guttation occurs through
  9. Lenticels b. Hydathodes c. Stomata d. Bark
  10. Clarity of image is generally known as
  11. Magnification b. Contrast c. Resolution d. Sedimentation
  12. Oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate form
  13. α-Ketoglutarate b. Succinate c. Cis-Aconitate d. Fumarate
  14. Plant oxidizes sugar in chloroplast during day time without production of energy called
  15. C4 cycle b. Photorespiration c. C3 cycle d. Photophosphorylation
  16. Some structure are smaller than virus having single stranded RNA with some double stranded regions

called

  1. Viroids b. Prions c. Minus strand virus d. Double stranded DNS virus
  2. Anaerobic bacteria produce all chemicals during respiration except
  3. Ethanol b. CO2 c. Water d. Lactic acid
  4. A typical structure of obligate parasite, specialized for fixation and absorption
  5. Flagella b. Pili c. Haustoria d. Root hairs
  6. In banana tree, flowers are covered over by one or many large brackets called
  7. Spathes b. Spadix c. Capitulum d. Palea
  8. The hydrostatic pressure in excess of atmospheric pressure is known as
  9. Water potential b. Pressure potential c. Osmotic potential
  10. Solute potential
  11. Induction of flowering in response to the relative length of day and night is known as
  12. Photoperiodism b. Photophosphorylation c. Photorespiration
  13. Phototropism

SECTION ‘B'(SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS

Time: 1 hour 45 min Max Marks: 22

Q2. Attempt any 11-part questions. Each question carries TWO mark.

  1. Why insectivorous plants use insects as food?
  2. Why Chloroplast is said to be an energy converting organelle?
  3. Describe the role and deficiency symptoms of Nitrogen and Potassium in plant.
  4. Differentiate between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
  5. Why Photorespiration is considered as wasteful process?
  6. Define followings:

* Double Fertilization * Heterospory

  1. What do you mean by bacterial growth? Describe its phases.
  2. Why Protoctista considered as polyphyletic kingdom?
  3. Give botanical name of any four of the following

*Wheat *Mako*Barley*rice*Amaltas*Mulhethi.

  1. Describe the classification of bacteria on the basis of their shapes?
  2. Draw a well labelled diagram of the followings:

*Bacteriophage virus * Fern prothallus

  1. How many ATP and NADPH requires to fix 1 carbon, 3 carbon, 6 carbon and 12 carbon.
  2. What features allow fungi to survive in all environment where life is possible?
  3. Why osmotic adjustment is beneficial for plants?
  4. What do you mean by positive and negative sense virus?
  5. Why desert plants reduce their leaf size?

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Max Marks: 14

Note: Attempt any two question from this section all question carries equal marks.

Q3. Explain structure and properties of Plasma membrane with diagram. OR Light independent

reaction (C3 cycle) of photosynthesis in detail.

Q4. What are Growth regulators? Name and discuss five in detail. OR Explain the life cycle of Moss

with the help of diagrams.

Q5. Describe structure of Bacterium with diagram.

 


 

MATHEMATICS PAPER 1 (MODEL QUESTION PAPER)

Time: 20 minutes SECTION A Maximum Marks: 20

Multiple Choice Questions

Note: (i). This section consists of20 part questions and all are to be answered. Each question carries one marks.

(ii). Do not copy the part questions in your answer-book. Fill the circle of correct option.

(iii). The use of calculator is allowed. All notations are used in their usual meanings.

  1. 1. Choose the correct answer for each of the given options.

i). The real part of

2+𝑖

𝑖

is equal to:

* 1 * 2 * -1 *

1

2

ii). (

1+𝑖

1−𝑖

)

12

=

* 1 * -1 * 𝑖 * −𝑖

iii). Let k be a scalar and A, B, C be the square matrix of the same order, then (𝑘 𝐴𝐵𝐶)𝑡 =

* 𝑘 𝐴𝑡𝐵𝑡𝐶𝑡 * 𝑘 𝐶𝑡𝐵𝑡𝐴𝑡 * 𝑘 𝐴𝐵𝐶 * 𝑘 𝐶𝐵𝐴

iv). If A is idempotent matrix, then:

* 𝐴2 = 1 * 𝐴2 = 0 * 𝐴2 = 𝐴 * 𝐴2 = 𝐴𝑡

v). The distance of the point (−3, 4, 5) from the origin is:

* 50 * 5√2 * 6 * 2√5

vi). A sequence is a function whose domain is set of:

* 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑒𝑟𝑠 * 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 * 𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 * 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

vii). Let r be the common ratio of a geometric series, if |𝑟| > 1, then infinite geometric series is:

* 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑡 * 𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑡 * 𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 * ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠

viii). Σ46 100 𝑛0

𝑛=40 =

* 100 * 46 * 600 * 4600

ix). The product of number 16.17.18.19 is also equal to:

* 20𝑃4 * 20𝐶4 * 19𝑃4 * 19𝐶4

x). Two teams A and B are playing a match, the probability that team A wins is:

*

1

3

*

2

3

*

1

2

* 1

xi). 1 + 2𝑥 + 3𝑥2 + 4𝑥3 + ⋯ =

* (1 + 𝑥)−1 * (1 − 𝑥)−1 * (1 + 𝑥)−2 * (1 − 𝑥)−2

xii). Domain of the function 𝑓(𝑥) =

2𝑥−3

4𝑥−5

is the set of all real numbers except

*

3

2

* 3 *

5

4

* 5

xiii). The function 𝑓(𝜃) = cos3 𝜃 is an/a:

* 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 * 𝑜𝑑𝑑 * 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟 * 𝑛𝑒𝑖𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑛𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑑𝑑

xiv). Solution space of linear inequality 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 6, ∀ 𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ ℝ, includes all points

* 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒 * 𝑏𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒

* 𝑜𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒 * 𝑜𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒

xv). The feasible solution which maximizes or minimizes the objective function is called the:

* 𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 * 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑛𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛

* 𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 * 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑥 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛

xvi). A group of angles are allied angle of basic angle 𝜃, if sum or difference of any two of them gives the

integral multiple of:

* 90𝑜 or

𝜋

2

radians * 180𝑜 or 𝜋 radians * 30𝑜 or

𝜋

6

radians * 45𝑜 or

𝜋

4

radians

xvii). A circle, which passes through all vertices of a triangle is called the:

* 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑚 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 * 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 * 𝑡𝑟𝑖 − 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 * 𝑒 − 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒

xviii). In any equilateral triangle ABC, with usual notations, 𝑟: 𝑅: 𝑟1 =

* 1: 2: 3 * 3: 2: 1 * 1: 3: 2 * 1: 1: 1

xix). sec [sin−1 (−

1

2

)] =

*

2

√3

*

√3

2

*

1

2

* −

2

√3

xx). The solution of √2 sin 𝜃 − 1 = 0 in the interval [

𝜋

2

, 𝜋] is:

*

𝜋

4

*

3𝜋

4

*

5𝜋

4

*

7𝜋

4

2 | P a g e

Time: 02 hours 40 minutes Maximum Marks: 80

SECTION B

(Short-Answer Questions Marks 50)

Note: Attempt any TEN part questions from this section, selecting at least THREE part questions from each

question. You may choose the tenth part question from any one sub-section. All questions carry equation

marks.

COMPLEX NUMBER, MATRIX AND DETERMINANT, VECTORS AND FUNCTION & GRAPHS

  1. 2. i). Solve the quadratic equation 𝑧2 − 6𝑧 = −13 by completing the squares, where z is a complex

number.

ii). Find the period of the following period matrix.

[

1 −2 −6

−3 2 9

2 0 −3

]

iii). Without expanding determinants, prove that.

|

𝛼 𝛽𝛾 𝛼𝛽𝛾

𝛽 𝛾𝛼 𝛼𝛽𝛾

𝛾 𝛼𝛽 𝛼𝛽𝛾

| = |

𝛼 𝛼2 𝛼3

𝛽 𝛽2 𝛽3

𝛾 𝛾2 𝛾3

|

iv). A force of 22𝑁 is applied to the end of 0.15 meter wrench at an angle of 75 degrees with the axis

of rotation. Calculate the magnitude of the moment 𝑀⃗⃗ 𝑜 produced by applied force.

v). Find the point of intersection of the following function graphically.

𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 2 and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥2 − 4𝑥 + 6

SEQUENCE & SERIES, PROBABILITY, MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION & BINOMIAL THEOREM

  1. 3. i). If the 𝑝𝑡ℎ term of an H. P. is 𝑞, the 𝑞𝑡ℎ term is 𝑝; prove that the (𝑝 + 𝑞)𝑡ℎ term is

𝑝𝑞

(𝑝+𝑞)

.

ii). Find the sum of the following series. 3 + 6 + 21 + 96 + 471 + ⋯ 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑠

iii). How many words can be formed by 3 vowels and 4 consonants out of 5 vowels and 7 consonants.

iv). If the probability of solving a problem by two students Ahsan and Umar are

1

2

and

1

3

respectively

then what is the probability of the problem to be solved.

v). Prove the following statemen by mathematical induction. 7𝑛 − 4𝑛 is divisible by 3.

LINEAR PROGRAMING AND TRIGONOMETRY

  1. 4. i). Solve the following LP programming problems by graphical method when 𝑥 ≥ 0, ≥ 0.

Maximize the objective function 𝑧 = 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 10𝑥 + 11𝑦,

Subject to the constraints 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 8; 6𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 10.

ii). Express 4 sin 𝜃 + 3 cos 𝜃 in the form 𝑟 sin(𝜃 + 𝜑), where 𝜃 and 𝜑 are in first quadrant.

iii). Prove that. (a). sin 3𝜃 = 3 sin 𝜃 − 4 sin3 𝜃

(b).

sin 6𝜃+sin 4𝜃

cos 6𝜃+cos 4𝜃

= tan 5𝜃

iv). The area of triangle is 3.346 square unit. If 𝛽 = 20.9𝑜, 𝛾 = 117.2𝑜. Find 𝑎 and angle 𝛼.

v). Solve the equation cos 𝜃 − 𝜃 = 0, graphically for the interval −

𝜋

2

≤ 𝜃 ≤

𝜋

2

.

3 | P a g e

SECTION C

(Detailed-Answer Questions Marks 30)

Note: Attempt any TWO questions. All questions carry equal marks.

  1. 5. a). Solve the non-homogeneous system of linear equations using Gauss Jordan method.

2𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4 𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 2 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 (Marks 08)

b). Find the volume of the tetrahedron whose vertices are 𝐴(2, 1, 8), 𝐵(3, 2, 9), 𝐶(2, 1,4), and

𝐷(3, 3, 10). (Marks 07)

  1. 6. a). If 𝑥 =

1

3

+

1.3

3.6

+

1.3.6

3.6.9

+

1.3.6.9

3.6.9.12

+ ⋯, prove that 𝑥2 + 2𝑥 − 2 = 0. (Marks 08)

b). The starting salary of a peon was 𝑅𝑠. 8000/= and after each subsequent year his salary was

increased by 15%. What total amount of salary he got for the first twelve years? (Marks 07)

  1. 7. a). Find and verify the general solution of the following trigonometric equation. (Marks 08)

3 tan2 𝑥 + 2√3 tan 𝑥 = −1

b). The sides of a parallelogram are 25𝑐𝑚 and 35𝑐𝑚 long and one of its angles is 36𝑜. Find the

lengths of its diagonals. (Marks 07)


Chemistry – I SECTION – A (Multiple Choice Questions)

Note: This section consists of 33 part questions and all are to be answered. Each question carries one mark. (33 Marks)
Q.1
(i)
The total number of ions in one formula unit of FeCl3 are:
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 12.04 x 1023
(c) 18.06 x 1023 (d) 24.08 x 1023
(ii)
When 7.0 x 1012 is multiplied by 2.0 x 10-3, the answer will be:
(a) 1.4 x 109 (b) 1.4 x 1010
(c) 1.4 x 10-15 (d) 1.4 x 10-36
(iii)
Quantum number value for 3d orbitals are: (a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (b) n = 3, ℓ = 2
(c) n = 3, ℓ = 3 (d) n = 2, ℓ = 3
(iv)
The range of wavelength of x-rays lies between;
(a) 0.1Å to 10Å (b) 10Å to 100Å
(c) 100Å to 500Å (d) 4000Å to 7000Å
(v)
Bohr’s theory cannot be applied on:
(a) H (b) H+
(c) He+1 (d) Li+2
(vi)
What is the hybrid state of carbon in C2H2 molecule:
(a) sp3 (b) sp2
(c) sp (d) dsp2
(vii)
This molecule has zero dipole moment:
(a) C6H6 (b) NH3
(c) H2S (d) NO2
(viii)
The geometry of BF3 is planar trigonal, its bond angle should be:
(a) 104.5 (b) 109.5
(c) 107 (d) 120
(ix)
VBT tells us about all of the following facts except:
(a) Bond length (b) Bond strength
(c) Bond energy (d) Bond order
(x)
Cooling appliances like air conditioners and refrigerators are working on the principle of:
(a) Common ion effect (b) Joule-Thomson effect
(c) Pauli’s exclusion principle (d) Le-Chatlier’s principle
2
(xi)
The rate of diffusion of Helium (He) compared with CH4 is:
(a) 0.5 time (b) Two times
(c) Three times (d) Four times
(xii)
The molar volume of Oxygen (O2) is highest at:
(a) 100C and 1 atm (b) 25C and 2 atm
(c) 200C and 0.5 atm (d) 40C and 0.5 atm
(xiii)
Plasma is the fourth state of matter, it consists of:
(a) Neutral molecules (b) Positive ions
(c) Negative electrons (d) All of these
(xiv)
Cooking time is reduced in a pressure cooker because:
(a) Boiling point of water rises (b) Heat is stored in pressure cooker
(c) Vapor pressure of liquid is reduced (d) Heat is uniformly distributed
(xv)
Which of the following molecule possess strongest London forces:
(a) H2 (b) He
(c) CH4 (d) Ne
(xvi)
Which of the following pair of compounds may represents isomorphism:
(a) NaCl and KNO3 (b) MgO and NaF
(c) NaNO3 and CdS (d) NaF and CaCO3
(xvii)
A big crystal can be cut or split into smaller size of identical shape; this phenomenon is called:
(a) Anisotropy (b) Cleavage
(c) Symmetry (d) Isomorphism
(xviii)
Kp = Kc when Δn is equal to:
(a) zero (b) 1
(c) -1 (d) 2
(xix)
The solubility of MgCl2 is X, its Ksp will be:
(a) x2 (b) 2×2
(c) 4×2 (d) 4×3
(xx)
The unit of rate constant for the first order reaction is:
(a) Ms-1 (b) s-1
(c) M-1 s-1 (d) M-2 s-1
(xxi)
Amphoteric substance among the following is:
(a) K2O (b) CO2
(c) ZnO (d) MgO
(xxii)
Which of the following salt is hydrolyzed in water:
(a) Na2SO4 (b) KCl
(c) NH4Cl (d) NaNO3
(xxiii)
Conjugate base of HCO3− is:
(a) H2CO3 (b) CO3−2
(c) H+ (d) H2O
3
(xxiv)
The decomposition of H2O2 is inhibited by:
(a) Ethanol (b) Glycerine
(c) MnO2 (d) V2O5
(xxv)
The rate constant of a reaction depends upon:
(a) Temperature (b) Initial concentration
(c) Time of reaction (d) Extent of reaction
(xxvi)
Effect of pressure change play significant role in the solubility of:
(a) Solid into liquid (b) Liquid into liquid
(c) Gas into liquid (d) All of them
(xxvii)
Milk is an example of this type of colloid:
(a) Gel (b) Aerosol
(c) Emulsion (d) Foam
(xxviii)
Parts per trillion means:
(a) 103 (b) 106
(c) 109 (d) 1012
(xxix)
Which of the following enthalpy change is always negative:
(a) Enthalpy of formation (b) Enthalpy of decomposition
(c) Enthalpy of combustion (d) Enthalpy of reaction
(xxx)
Which of the following is not a state function of a system?
(a) Pressure (b) Enthalpy
(c) Internal energy (d) Work done
(xxxi)
Oxidation number of Cr in Na2Cr2O7 is:
(a) + 3 (b) + 6
(c) + 8 (d) + 12
(xxxii)
Galvanized rode of iron is coated with:
(a) Nickel (b) Zinc
(c) Chromium (d) Carbon
(xxxiii)
KOH is used as electrolyte in:
(a) Lead accumulator (b) Fuel cell
(c) Alkaline battery (d) Dry cell

4
SECTION – B (Short Answered Questions)
Note: Attempt any eight parts questions. All questions carry equal marks. (32 Marks)
Q.2
(i)
(a) What is meant by actual yield? Why it is always less than theoretical yield in a reaction.
(b) The volume of a sample of Nitrogen gas (N2) at STP is 1120cm3; calculate the mass and number of molecules of N2 in the sample.
(ii)
Aluminum Sulphide is prepared by the reaction of Aluminum metal and sulphur powder at elevated temperature.
2Al + 3S → Al2S3
If 135g Aluminum and 160g sulphur are taken for the reaction, calculate what mass of Al2S3 will be formed.
(iii)
State Pauli and Hund’s rule. Write the electronic configuration of the following species:
* Ca+2 (Z = 20) * Br-1 (Z = 35)
(iv)
Draw molecular orbital diagram of O2 molecule. Find bond order of O2 molecule and explain why O2 molecule is paramagnetic?
(v)
Oxygen gas was collected over water at 24C and a total pressure of 762 torr. If the volume of the gas collected was 300cm3. Calculate the number of moles and the mole fraction of oxygen gas in the mixture (the vapour pressure of water at 22.4 torr).
(vi)
(a) What is Viscosity? Why viscosity decreases with the rise of temperature?
(b) Differentiate between any one of the following:
* Isomorphism and polymorphism * Ionic solids and covalent solids
(vii)
State Le-Chatlier principle and discuss its application in the synthesis of ammonia by Haber’s process.
(viii)
What is Buffer solution? Explain how it resists the change of pH by adding small amount of acid and base.
(ix)
Enlist various factors which influence on the rate of chemical reaction and describe the effect of temperature on reaction rate.
(x)
The reaction 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl was studied at 25C. the following results were obtained.
Experiment No. Initial concentration (mol/dm3) Initial rate (mol/dm3.s) NO Cl2
1
2
3
0.1
0.1
0.2
0.1
0.2
0.1
2.52 x 10-3
5.04 x 10-3
10.08 x 10-3
Determine the rate law and order of reaction.
5
(xi)
(a) How is a true solution differentiate from suspension.
(b) A solution is prepared by dissolving 45g glucose in 72g water determine mole fraction of glucose and water in the solution.
(xii)
State Raoult’s law an derive its mathematical expression in three forms.
(xiii)
State and explain First Law of thermodynamics. Derive pressure-volume work of a system.
(xiv)
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of carbon disulphide from the given data.
C + 2S CS2 (Hf = ?)
C + O2 CO2 (H = – 393.5 KJ/mol)
S + O2 SO2 (H = – 296.8 KJ/mol)
CS2 + 3O2 CO2 + 2SO2 (H = – 1075 KJ/mol)
SECTION – C (Detailed Answer Questions)
Note: Answer any two questions. All questions carry equal marks. (20 Marks)
Q.3
(a) What is an Ideal gas? What are the causes of deviation of real gas from ideal behavior? Explain these deviations at low temperature and high pressure.
(b) Derive an expression for the radius of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit by using Bohr model.
Q.4
(a) Write down the postulates of valence shell electron pair repulsion theory (VSEPR) and predict the shape of the following molecules on the bases of VSEPR theory.
* NH3 * CO2
(b) For the reaction
2𝑆𝑂2(𝑔)+ 𝑂2(𝑔)⇌2𝑆𝑂3(𝑔) (H = -ve)
If there are 5 moles of SO2, 3 moles of O2 and 8 moles of SO3 are present at equilibrium in a 1dm3 flask, at 323K temperature, calculate its Kc and Kp.
Q.5
(a) What are colligative properties of solution explain elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point.
(b) Define redox reaction and balance any one of the following equations by ion electron method.
Fe+2+ Cr2O7−2+ H+ Fe+3+ Cr+3+ H2O (acidic medium)
MnO4−+ SO3−2 Mn+2+ SO4−2 (basic medium)
OR
Define electrode potential. Draw a cell diagram of zinc hydrogen galvanic cell. Write down the redox reaction and explain how is the electrode potential of zinc determined.

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